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Reading that in pre-conquest America "the inhabitants were too few for the country, and want of people and money gave men no temptation to enlarge their possessions of land, or contest for wider extent of ground," I don't see respect, rather the groundwork for Locke's theory of just expropriation https://johnquiggin.com/2015/04/20/lockes-theory-of-just-expropriation-crosspost-from-crooked-timber/

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Nobody denies (I made the point myself) that Locke's account of property may be used to justify settler colonialism in the Americas. But that's compatible with everything I claim.

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